That doesn't answer my question.
Should we limit the food sold? If, for example, Spaghetti Sauce isn't good a good nutritional food stuff, should we just not sell it, period?
		
		
	 
If the taxpayers give out aid with the goal of reducing or eliminating hunger, isn't it a worthwhile goal to do that for as few dollars as possible and still achieve that result?
If people spend their own money on something, isn't the criteria different?
		
 
		
	 
The taxpayers don't give out aid; they pay taxes.
They don't pay taxes with any goal, other than to avoid being jailed for not paying their taxes. Taxes are not a charity, towards which the taxpayer donates; nor are they a purchase for which the taxpayer is a customer. Taxes are funds levied by the government to pay for the activities of government.
The government does a LOT of different things with taxes, and has a number of different objectives when doing so. These objectives and the means by which the government attempts to achieve them are determined by the various branches of government, via representative democracy; in principle, the goals are set by the electorate as a whole, although in practice they seem to be set more by lobbyists, and to a lesser extent by voters, who are a subset of the electorate.
Despite the fact that most lobbyists, most voters, and most of the electorate pay taxes, resulting in a significant overlap between these groups and the group of 'taxpayers', it is not correct to say that 'taxpayers' have a say in how the money is spent; 'Voters' and 'Taxpayers' are two very different sets - not least in that individual taxpayers have very different levels of input into government coffers, but each voter has, in principle*, a very similar level of influence on the way that money is spent. 
No matter how much you pay in tax, your input to what the 'goal' of spending that money might be is theoretically much the same as the input from people who pay no tax at all, or who are even net beneficiaries of the government, receiving more in government payments than they contribute in taxes. The idea of 'one man, one vote' is pretty solidly enshrined in the constitutions of most developed nations (and was modified to 'one person, one vote' over the course of the 20th Century). While it would certainly be possible in theory to weight voting power proportionally to taxes paid, I am not aware of that ever having been attempted; other systems designed to allow only the wealthy to vote at all have been tried, but been discarded in favour of universal suffrage, and even those usually took the form of a qualifying level of wealth, with all qualified voters having votes of equal value. Taxpayers are not like shareholders, where voting power is determined by the number of shares purchased.  
Whether 'Taxpayers' would be any better or worse than 'The Government', at deciding in advance how poor people should choose to spend their money, is irrelevant. Only two entities can, in principle decide the best way for the money to be spent - the recipients of the money, acting as individuals; or the Government, acting as a monolithic proxy for the desires of the electorate. 
I find it very odd indeed that you are apparently supporting the idea that the government is a better decision maker than the individual, given your exact opposite stance on other subjects; I can only guess that your change of heart in this instance comes from your conflation of 'The government' with 'Taxpayers', despite these being two very different things indeed.
*Of course, this ideal is rarely actually achieved, and wealthy people have disproportionate influence on government; But that's a bug, not a feature.