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Theological Fine Tuning

If you claim the universe has always existed that's not impossible.
But neither is it impossible that the universe was caused by intent.

Why pretend that those are the only two possibilities? Just to give your some god a 50% chance of existing? That's a fail for your religion anyhow, even if those WERE the only two possibilities. The "intent" that is assumed have a 50% chance of being causal could come from any one of (conservatively estimated) 10,000 gods that people have invented. That would give YOUR god a fat 0.005% chance of being/harboring the intent that caused the universe.



OK
Gloves off. It's possible God created the universe then He Himself ceased to exist leaving just the universe such as it is.
 
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Why would an (eta: a hypothetical) uncaused cause need to be personal/intentional? My experience is that everything intentional has a reason/cause. Likewise for things that are voluntary or in any way decisive.

Isn't this just another way of saying you believe there's no such thing as volition?
Just say so. But please let's not use terms like free will, intent, motive, etc whilst simultaneously defining them as though they were contranyms.
 
Why would an (eta: a hypothetical) uncaused cause need to be personal/intentional? My experience is that everything intentional has a reason/cause. Likewise for things that are voluntary or in any way decisive.

Isn't this just another way of saying you believe there's no such thing as volition?
Just say so. But please let's not use terms like free will, intent, motive, etc whilst simultaneously defining them as though they were contranyms.

I believe volition means the faculty or power of using one's will. But there is no absolutely or perfectly free will. Volition and will are caused. They are the product of whatever mind produced them, and as such are expressions of whatever physical processes make up the brain within which the mind operates. One is free to be what one is and nothing more. The word freedom means nothing if it doesn't define the boundaries within which one operates. In fact these boundaries are the means by which freedom is obtained. God-like freedom perverts a perfectly good concept so that it is meaningless. Sorry chief. But I'm glad I clarified that this is really a discussion about free will. That should simplify things.
 
...says the dude who special pleads the opposite.
And I'm OK with that. If you claim the universe has always existed that's not impossible.
But neither is it impossible that the universe was caused by intent.



The additional claim that the first cause is a personal God is simply a non-sequitur.

No it's not because it's not an additional claim it's one of the types of cause.
If atheology holds that an infinite regression of prior causes are impersonal that's
not a non-sequitur either.

You like throwing around the terms "special pleading" and "non-sequitur" but not all special pleading is necessarily invalid. And not every claim or belief is presented as the coercive logical conclusion inferred from a set of propositions.

If the cause of the universe beginning can be likened to a light switch being turned on (or off) then the switch can't spontaneously turn itself on - because that would beg the question why it didn't turn itself on sooner than 13.7B years ago.

And it can't be an involuntary (impersonal) light switch because cause necessarily implies contingency. Agent/Mechanism

If God is the personal light switch in this analogy, then who manufactured said light switch?

If lower case "g" god was created by a Higher Being guess which Being I would worship.

Is God an unmanufactured light switch?

Yes.

If God is immutable, then how can the light switch ever be switched from off to on?

Who says God is immutable such that He can't decide to flip the switch?

If God is eternal, then when was this light switch off?

13.7 billion years ago

The cause must be personal in the sense that it is the voluntary, decisive trigger that does not depend on a prior deterministic cause.

What triggered the God switch to flick itself on?

What triggered Beethovens to create any given one of his symphonies?
You talk like you've never had a spontaneous moment of creativity where you do something new for the first time.

What caused the trigger?

That's what we're contemplating. Was the light switched on deliberately, accidentally, randomly or has it always been on.

Either the universe has always existed or it was caused by intent or it came into existence by pure random chance.

Time is a dimension of Minkowski spacetime,

Special pleading

which in turn is a property of the physical universe.

Non-sequitur

This means that there is no point in time at which the universe did not exist.

There is no point in time at which God did not exist.
Oh dear. See how easy it is to gainsay someone else's brute fact assertion about metaphysics.

If we define 'always existed' as 'existed at every point in time', then the universe has always existed, at least according to relativity.

How about we define God as past-eternal / uncaused and having volition.

Of course, that conclusion only holds if relativity correctly describes the nature of time for all points in time, but we already know that it doesn't. So we simply don't know whether the universe has 'always existed'.

Make up your mind. Has or has not?

At the very least, we have learned enough to move beyond metaphysical arguments that depend on an intuitive, classical conception of time.

Speak for yourself.

We have no evidence that the universe was 'caused by intent',

Yes we do. Cue the intelligent design argument in ...3,2,1

and the arguments presented in favour of this conclusion, including the KCA, are either unsound or invalid.

Hand waving now?

We have no evidence that the universe 'came into existence by pure random chance', just hypotheses presented by physicists, including (ironically) Alexander Vilenkin.

I wouldn't expect to find evidence that such a grand design happened by pure random chance either. Guess why I think that :)
You are just rambling, man. You make no sense whatsoever. Sad.
 
If you claim the universe has always existed that's not impossible.
But neither is it impossible that the universe was caused by intent.

Why pretend that those are the only two possibilities? Just to give your some god a 50% chance of existing? That's a fail for your religion anyhow, even if those WERE the only two possibilities. The "intent" that is assumed have a 50% chance of being causal could come from any one of (conservatively estimated) 10,000 gods that people have invented. That would give YOUR god a fat 0.005% chance of being/harboring the intent that caused the universe.



OK
Gloves off. It's possible God created the universe then He Himself ceased to exist leaving just the universe such as it is.

And
it is possible that the universe just began.
it is possible that the universe has always been.

What the heck do you think that ”it is possible” is a useful tool to say anything useful in this case?
Its only ”possible” to the one that isnt aware of the facts that makes it impossible. So your argument is an argument from ignorance.
 
The additional claim that the first cause is a personal God is simply a non-sequitur.

No it's not because it's not an additional claim it's one of the types of cause.
If atheology holds that an infinite regression of prior causes are impersonal that's
not a non-sequitur either.

One cannot conclude that the cause of the universe, if one exists at all, is either 'personal' or 'impersonal' given only that the universe began to exist and had a cause. It just doesn't follow.

You like throwing around the terms "special pleading" and "non-sequitur" but not all special pleading is necessarily invalid. And not every claim or belief is presented as the coercive logical conclusion inferred from a set of propositions.

Agreed: many beliefs are irrational.

If lower case "g" god was created by a Higher Being guess which Being I would worship.

I suppose you'd worship whatever the Bible told you to: I can't assume you'd reach a rational conclusion.

If God is immutable, then how can the light switch ever be switched from off to on?

Who says God is immutable such that He can't decide to flip the switch?

If God is eternal, then when was this light switch off?

13.7 billion years ago

Isn't God the light switch in your analogy? If he's immutable, how did he change state from off to on? How long was he off for?

What triggered the God switch to flick itself on?

What triggered Beethovens to create any given one of his symphonies?
You talk like you've never had a spontaneous moment of creativity where you do something new for the first time.

Humans have causes for existing, and we are not immutable. Spontaneous moments of creativity are the product of our brains.

Time is a dimension of Minkowski spacetime,

Special pleading

How so? You are quite willing to cite the Big Bang theory on the age of the universe but you reject the concept of spacetime? Looks like you're cherry-picking from relativity.

which in turn is a property of the physical universe.

Non-sequitur

I haven't presented this premise as following from other premises, so one wonders why you think it's a non-sequitur.

This means that there is no point in time at which the universe did not exist.

There is no point in time at which God did not exist.
Oh dear. See how easy it is to gainsay someone else's brute fact assertion about metaphysics.

Your bald assertion doesn't contradict the conclusion that "there is no point in time at which the universe did not exist".

If we define 'always existed' as 'existed at every point in time', then the universe has always existed, at least according to relativity.

How about we define God as past-eternal / uncaused and having volition.

OK. And?

I stipulated a definition for 'always existed' to clarify what I was claiming. If you don't agree that 'always existed' means the same as 'existed at every point in time' then it would be more useful to offer a correction rather than some irrelevant definition of God.

Of course, that conclusion only holds if relativity correctly describes the nature of time for all points in time, but we already know that it doesn't. So we simply don't know whether the universe has 'always existed'.

Make up your mind. Has or has not?

We don't know either way.

We have no evidence that the universe was 'caused by intent',

Yes we do. Cue the intelligent design argument in ...3,2,1

Been there, refuted that. Feel free to try again in a new thread.

and the arguments presented in favour of this conclusion, including the KCA, are either unsound or invalid.

Hand waving now?

Refuting every creationist argument is beyond the scope of this thread.

We have no evidence that the universe 'came into existence by pure random chance', just hypotheses presented by physicists, including (ironically) Alexander Vilenkin.

I wouldn't expect to find evidence that such a grand design happened by pure random chance either. Guess why I think that :)

In previous posts you've alluded to your own 'Road to Damascus' moment in which you believe you experienced some kind of divine intervention. I'd guess that motivated your conversion to Christianity, which is the predominant religion in Australia and which most Australians are exposed to even if they are raised in secular households.

If that guess isn't far from correct then your attempts at apologetics appear to be nothing more that post hoc rationalisations for your beliefs.
 
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I'm not following. CC wrote:


"Theists tell us that the Universe is so fine tuned, there must have been a creative mind to account for that. It cannot have happened by chance.".

Are you saying theists don't tell us that? Later in your reply to me you wrote:


"A theist formally argues that the best explanation for existence of the fine-tuning we observe is design."

That sounds to me like what you're saying is pretty close to what CC said you guys say. If there's some vital distinction I'm missing, please point it out. Is it just that CC said "must" and you said "best"? I think there are plenty of theists who say "must".
If theists actually were proclaiming that JUMP (of a conclusion) I would immediately dismiss their reasoning as ridiculous. Theists don’t simply tell you fine-tuning proves God exists. That is way over simplifying the CASE. The FTA is specific only to the conclusion that the best explanation for fine-tuning is design. The FTA says nothing of God. The FTA is but one piece of evidence in a CASE for God’s existence. It’s not the whole case.

My response to you in 44 was composed alongside the same thoughts I presented in post 42, where I further addressed his reasoning. I thought you would have read that as part of the context to our conversation. So if you still have any questions there see post 42.

But this.......................
You and Cheerful Charlie are using the word "universe" in two different ways. He's using it to mean "everything". You're using it to mean "everything on one side of an arbitrary border in my mind, a line I can use as an excuse to shut down chains of reasoning any time they threaten to cross it." You put planets and people and so forth on the "universe" side of your mental border, and you put God on the other side, the "not universe" side. Cheerful Charlie doesn't do that. Let us therefore discard the word "universe", since it has become a hindrance to clarity.
Then he should have been addressing pantheism and not theism. To a Biblical theist the universe is all of physical reality, the space-time continuum and all therein. A theist asserts that God transcends the universe. This is a common understanding in the context of theism and philosophy….. his chosen context. So if he is trying to make an argument against theism he should address theism….Right?
Huh? He is addressing theism. It isn't pantheists who say fine-tuning implies design. He's addressing theism, and he's pointing out that you guys make an arbitrary distinction between the part of reality you call "physical reality, the space-time continuum and all therein", and the part of reality you'd call "God, and the rest of non-physical reality". You appear to be applying different reasoning rules to the two parts. That's why we charge you with special pleading.
Wow you just special pleaded theism out of existence. Yes you are the one out of the mainstream here with YOUR special pleading.
I’ll work my way backwards through that section.

Your charge of special pleading is so arbitrary that it defeats itself. To make that charge you have to have already special pleaded your definition…..that the universe/reality is everything…to include God.
But…………
Your definition is NOT the accepted standard and context of this debate. Thus you are the one special pleading an alternate meaning. Let’s reason this through.

Let’s go with your reasoning here that the universe/reality is all there is….to include God, if he exists.
Certainly this…………..

View attachment 12107
………………is all wrong. Those standard distinctions do not exist anymore. Rewrite the textbooks and revise the history. Go fixi wiki. Theism and deism never existed in the first place.

Theism and Deism simply cease to exist. Pantheism is the only game left in town and that would make you an Apanthiest. Or possibly a very confused agnostic.

This………………
Huh? He is addressing theism. It isn't pantheists who say fine-tuning implies design
….isn’t even debatable any more. How could he be addressing theism? By your special pleading, it doesn’t exist. Only pantheism remains. (Which was my point there.)
Your special pleading makes things far simpler, let’s end all the debate because there is nothing there to debate. So does that sound reasonable to you?

See? You are the one actually special pleading against the standard distinctions commonly accepted throughout history. So to debate me any further would make you delusional, because I can’t really exist in your special world.

So next time you want to engage me, or any other theist, just remember in your world we aren’t really there. Thus I can’t be special pleading anything because I’m not really there in your world. You special pleaded theism out of existence altogether. Should you forget, I’ll remind you.
 
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As the paper makes clear, this "boundary" exists in some inflationary models.
Interesting interpretation. Show me specifically where they said that and how you reach that conclusion.
More specifically, the authors deal with a single frame of reference in Minkowski spacetime. Since the laws of relativity break down during the Planck epoch, Minkowski spacetime does not model the universe during the Planck epoch.
Make your case as to why this is relevant.
Because…………
I addressed this repeatedly. It is irrelevant. The greatness of this theorem is it simplicity. All that matters is the Hubble parameter.

I can’t read if you are trying to deny the theorem
Or
Purpose a “flaw” that has no bearing on the conclusion just to deny the conclusion.
 
As the paper makes clear, this "boundary" exists in some inflationary models.
Interesting interpretation. Show me specifically where they said that and how you reach that conclusion.

It's summarised for you in the abstract:
"Many inflating spacetimes are likely to violate the weak energy condition, a key assumption of singularity theorems. Here we offer a simple kinematical argument, requiring no energy condition, that a cosmological model which is inflating – or just expanding sufficiently fast – must be incomplete in null and timelike past directions. Specifically, we obtain a bound on the integral of the Hubble parameter over a past-directed timelike or null geodesic. Thus inflationary models require physics other than inflation to describe the past boundary of the inflating region of spacetime."


https://arxiv.org/pdf/gr-qc/0110012.pdf

More specifically, the authors deal with a single frame of reference in Minkowski spacetime. Since the laws of relativity break down during the Planck epoch, Minkowski spacetime does not model the universe during the Planck epoch.
Make your case as to why this is relevant.
Because…………
I addressed this repeatedly. It is irrelevant. The greatness of this theorem is it simplicity. All that matters is the Hubble parameter.

The theorem is based on comoving particles in a Minkowski spacetime manifold, therefore it implicitly assumes that relativity describes the nature of the universe at all points in time, including the Planck epoch.

The Hubble parameter governs the expansion of spacetime. One cannot make conclusions about spacetime during the Planck epoch, in which the laws of relativity break down and the nature of time itself is uncertain.
 
It's summarised for you in the abstract:
"Many inflating spacetimes are likely to violate the weak energy condition, a key assumption of singularity theorems. Here we offer a simple kinematical argument, requiring no energy condition, that a cosmological model which is inflating – or just expanding sufficiently fast – must be incomplete in null and timelike past directions. Specifically, we obtain a bound on the integral of the Hubble parameter over a past-directed timelike or null geodesic. Thus inflationary models require physics other than inflation to describe the past boundary of the inflating region of spacetime."


https://arxiv.org/pdf/gr-qc/0110012.pdf

More specifically, the authors deal with a single frame of reference in Minkowski spacetime. Since the laws of relativity break down during the Planck epoch, Minkowski spacetime does not model the universe during the Planck epoch.
Make your case as to why this is relevant.
Because…………
I addressed this repeatedly. It is irrelevant. The greatness of this theorem is it simplicity. All that matters is the Hubble parameter.

The theorem is based on comoving particles in a Minkowski spacetime manifold, therefore it implicitly assumes that relativity describes the nature of the universe at all points in time, including the Planck epoch.

The Hubble parameter governs the expansion of spacetime. One cannot make conclusions about spacetime during the Planck epoch, in which the laws of relativity break down and the nature of time itself is uncertain.
Again your quote makes my case…………..you’re not understanding what is says.

Both of your concerns are irrelevant to the theorem. I’m not saying they are irrelevant the theorem says they are irrelevant. It even says so right there in what you just quoted.

The theorem says the boundary (past finite universe) exists whether or not relativity holds……”requiring no energy conditions.”

The past boundary exists even though we don’t have the physics to describe it…………….”Thus inflationary models require physics other than inflation to describe the past boundary of the inflating region of spacetime." We don't know how it is there, but it is there. There is no escape.

The universe is past finite according to the BGV theorem. You have quoted it yourself several times…..thus I quote Vilenkin again……..

"It is said that an argument is what convinces reasonable men and a proof is what it takes to convince even an unreasonable man. With the proof now in place, cosmologists can no longer hide behind the possibility of a past-eternal universe. There is no escape: they have to face the problem of a cosmic beginning." - Alexander Vilenkin

Here is a whole lecture from Vilenkin himself….
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4IJLZO7o4Ak

Here is another article called in the beginning was the beginning where he explains the problem with cyclic models…
http://now.tufts.edu/articles/beginning-was-beginning

Read that article this time. He is saying these same things even stronger over a decade latter.
 
It's summarised for you in the abstract:
"Many inflating spacetimes are likely to violate the weak energy condition, a key assumption of singularity theorems. Here we offer a simple kinematical argument, requiring no energy condition, that a cosmological model which is inflating – or just expanding sufficiently fast – must be incomplete in null and timelike past directions. Specifically, we obtain a bound on the integral of the Hubble parameter over a past-directed timelike or null geodesic. Thus inflationary models require physics other than inflation to describe the past boundary of the inflating region of spacetime."


https://arxiv.org/pdf/gr-qc/0110012.pdf



The theorem is based on comoving particles in a Minkowski spacetime manifold, therefore it implicitly assumes that relativity describes the nature of the universe at all points in time, including the Planck epoch.

The Hubble parameter governs the expansion of spacetime. One cannot make conclusions about spacetime during the Planck epoch, in which the laws of relativity break down and the nature of time itself is uncertain.
Again your quote makes my case…………..you’re not understanding what is says.

Both of your concerns are irrelevant to the theorem. I’m not saying they are irrelevant the theorem says they are irrelevant. It even says so right there in what you just quoted.

The theorem says the boundary (past finite universe) exists whether or not relativity holds……”requiring no energy conditions.”

That just means that the theorem does not assume that any given model of spacetime obeys the weak energy condition. It has no bearing on the problem that we cannot apply existing models of spacetime to the Planck epoch.

The universe is past finite according to the BGV theorem. You have quoted it yourself several times…..thus I quote Vilenkin again……..

"It is said that an argument is what convinces reasonable men and a proof is what it takes to convince even an unreasonable man. With the proof now in place, cosmologists can no longer hide behind the possibility of a past-eternal universe. There is no escape: they have to face the problem of a cosmic beginning." - Alexander Vilenkin

Here is a whole lecture from Vilenkin himself….
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4IJLZO7o4Ak

Here is another article called in the beginning was the beginning where he explains the problem with cyclic models…
http://now.tufts.edu/articles/beginning-was-beginning

Read that article this time. He is saying these same things even stronger over a decade latter.

Sean Carroll has already provided the appropriate response to this tactic:

"On my part, I knew that WLC liked to glide from the BGV theorem (which says that classical spacetime description fails in the past) to the stronger statement that the universe probably had a beginning, even though the latter is not implied by the former. And his favorite weapon is to use quotes from Alex Vilenkin, one of the authors of the BGV theorem. So I talked to Alan Guth, and he was gracious enough to agree to let me take pictures of him holding up signs with his perspective: namely, that the universe probably didn’t have a beginning, and is very likely eternal. Now, why would an author of the BGV theorem say such a thing? For exactly the reasons I was giving all along: the theorem says nothing definitive about the real universe, it is only a constraint on the classical regime. What matters are models, not theorems, and different scientists will quite naturally have different opinions about which types of models are most likely to prove fruitful once we understand things better. In Vilenkin’s opinion, the best models (in terms of being well-defined and accounting for the data) are ones with a beginning. In Guth’s opinion, the best models are ones that are eternal. And they are welcome to disagree, because we don’t know the answer! Not knowing the answer is perfectly fine. What’s not fine is pretending that we do know the answer, and using that pretend-knowledge to draw premature theological conclusions. (Chatter on Twitter reveals theists scrambling to find previous examples of Guth saying the universe probably had a beginning. As far as I can tell Alan was there talking about inflation beginning, not the universe, which is completely different. But it doesn’t matter; good scientists, it turns out, will actually change their minds in response to thinking about things.)

"...[WLC] will continue to quote Vilenkin saying the universe probably had a beginning, which is fine because that’s what Vilenkin actually thinks. He will not start adding in the fact that Guth thinks the universe is probably eternal, nor will he take the even more respectable position of not relying on people’s individual opinions at all and simply admitting that we don’t have good scientific reasons to think one way or the other at the moment.)"
 
That just means that the theorem does not assume that any given model of spacetime obeys the weak energy condition. It has no bearing on the problem that we cannot apply existing models of spacetime to the Planck epoch.
I concur. But that has nothing to do with the boundary.
Sean Carroll has already provided the appropriate response to this tactic:

"On my part, I knew that WLC liked to glide from the BGV theorem (which says that classical spacetime description fails in the past) to the stronger statement that the universe probably had a beginning, even though the latter is not implied by the former. And his favorite weapon is to use quotes from Alex Vilenkin, one of the authors of the BGV theorem. So I talked to Alan Guth, and he was gracious enough to agree to let me take pictures of him holding up signs with his perspective: namely, that the universe probably didn’t have a beginning, and is very likely eternal. Now, why would an author of the BGV theorem say such a thing? For exactly the reasons I was giving all along: the theorem says nothing definitive about the real universe, it is only a constraint on the classical regime. What matters are models, not theorems, and different scientists will quite naturally have different opinions about which types of models are most likely to prove fruitful once we understand things better. In Vilenkin’s opinion, the best models (in terms of being well-defined and accounting for the data) are ones with a beginning. In Guth’s opinion, the best models are ones that are eternal. And they are welcome to disagree, because we don’t know the answer! Not knowing the answer is perfectly fine. What’s not fine is pretending that we do know the answer, and using that pretend-knowledge to draw premature theological conclusions. (Chatter on Twitter reveals theists scrambling to find previous examples of Guth saying the universe probably had a beginning. As far as I can tell Alan was there talking about inflation beginning, not the universe, which is completely different. But it doesn’t matter; good scientists, it turns out, will actually change their minds in response to thinking about things.)

"...[WLC] will continue to quote Vilenkin saying the universe probably had a beginning, which is fine because that’s what Vilenkin actually thinks. He will not start adding in the fact that Guth thinks the universe is probably eternal, nor will he take the even more respectable position of not relying on people’s individual opinions at all and simply admitting that we don’t have good scientific reasons to think one way or the other at the moment.)"

Please.

SC’s reference to Guth at that point was a non sequitur and straight out of middle school “my good friend meme.” Guth at the time was trying to avoid the implications of the BGV by reversing the arrow of time. The same thing Sean was attempting to do.

They were trying to develop a model that was exempt from the BGV, it was not denying the BGV. That model is greatly unphysical and does not avoid the beginning of the universe. It generates a new universe EXPANDING in the opposite direction and thus still subject to the BGV theorem, because it not in the past of our universe but a new expanding universe with a beginning. Hence the video link I sent just 13 mins in Vilenkin shows you why it does not work. Nice try…..but no. Watch the video.
 
Nice try…..but no.

Nice try but yes, apparently:

"So, as is often the case when one attempts to discuss scientifically a deep question, the answer is inconclusive. It looks to me that probably the universe had a beginning, but I would not want to place a large bet on the issue."

(Alan Guth)

http://www.counterbalance.org/cq-guth/didth-frame.html

Even without an understanding of all or even much of the physics, one thing is very clear to this amateur. There is a range of expert opinions out there and a range of possibilities, and much we don't know.

As such, relying on or accepting premise 2 of the KCA does not seem to be quite as warranted as you would like it to be.



And I might add that if we move instead to premise 1, you already know that your “my good friend meme” Vilenkin won't be citable.

And you need both premises to get to the bare conclusion.

And that's before the add-ons, about an uncaused, personal Creator of the universe who is a beginningless, changeless, immaterial, timeless, spaceless and enormously powerful elf.

And that's before you come to fess up about the other add-ons that are part of your personal beliefs. What we might call your secret hideaway house built on sand. :)
 
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We could just skip to the end that remez is trying to force this to.

You get a multiple choice quiz: Atheism, monotheism, pantheism, polytheism. Pick the most plausible "explanation".
 
Nice try but yes, apparently:

"So, as is often the case when one attempts to discuss scientifically a deep question, the answer is inconclusive. It looks to me that probably the universe had a beginning, but I would not want to place a large bet on the issue."

(Alan Guth)
He greatly downplays the probability. As you are for volitional reasons. You simply don't want it to be true. Seriously you are each admitting that is that is where the evidence is leading but you can't follow it there.

Remember my mission there w/ Bigfield was to show Bigfield that it was far more plausible that the universe began to exist. BGV was only part of it. It became the focus but was still only part of it. Mission accomplished. It would be far less plausible to believe that it did not begin.

Even without an understanding of all or even much of the physics, one thing is very clear to this amateur. There is a range of expert opinions out there and a range of possibilities, and much we don't know.

Again as I pointed out to Bigfield several times The "what" we don't know does not alter the outcome of the BGV.

As such, relying on or accepting premise 2 of the KCA does not seem to be quite as warranted as you would like it to be.



And I might add that if we move instead to premise 1, you already know that your “my good friend meme” Vilenkin won't be citable.

And you need both premises to get to the bare conclusion.
Good job learning about the KCA. I have been watching your progress.

Of course both premises need to be supported, but I wasn't directtly trying to defend the entiretly of the KCA. Remember Bigfield asked me for evidence that a beginning universe was far more plausible, which only came up because I was challenging CC's OP.

As I stated earlier Vilenkin is trying to reason against the law of causality (premise 1) by playing with language of quantum. But that is yet another context.
 
We could just skip to the end that remez is trying to force this to.

You get a multiple choice quiz: Atheism, monotheism, pantheism, polytheism. Pick the most plausible "explanation".

Your attempt to disparage me..... by summarizing my intent (selected by you) to be over simplified and absurd, is nothing more than heckling from the cheap seats.

CC set the intent, I responded, others engaged.
So...............................
Quit whining from the bench and get in the game.
 
He greatly downplays the probability.

And maybe you are inclined to up-play it.

And I'm not sure if meaningful, quantitative probabilities can be assigned for stuff we may not understand.

Either way, it weakens the premise automatically.

Of course both premises need to be supported, but I wasn't directtly trying to defend the entiretly of the KCA. Remember Bigfield asked me for evidence that a beginning universe was far more plausible, which only came up because I was challenging CC's OP.

As I stated earlier Vilenkin is trying to reason against the law of causality (premise 1) by playing with language of quantum. But that is yet another context.

Sure. But if there are weaknesses in each step, there is arguably a cumulative effect on the whole argument. And I see weaknesses not only in premises 1 & 2 but the add-ons to come. The argument tries to get to god. I think we would agree on that. I don't see it getting to god.
 
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Remember my mission there w/ Bigfield was to show Bigfield that it was far more plausible that the universe began to exist. BGV was only part of it. It became the focus but was still only part of it. Mission accomplished. It would be far less plausible to believe that it did not begin.

g-cvr-080501-mission-10a.grid-6x2.jpg



We're not in a position to say what is "far more plausible".

Such a conclusion certainly doesn't follow from the BGV theorem, which identifies a boundary in inflationary models of spacetime but cannot say anything definitive about the real universe. It certainly does not support the premise that "the universe began to exist".
 
Argument looks stuck at WLC's line about Vilenkin.

What if people propose, just for the sake of argument again, to accept "the" universe began? So remez can proceed along his script.
 
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