That's not what that study found. Either you are too ignorant to understand or you are immoral and are trying to lie. The study found that the very wealthy had the only power to influence the government. And ordinary people had NONE.
You know everyone else can read, right? This is directly from the study you posted:
Before we proceed further, it is important to note that even if one of our predictor variables is found (when controlling for the others) to have no independent impact on policy at all, it does not follow that the actors whose preferences are reflected by that variable—average citizens, economic elites, or organized interest groups of one sort or another—always “lose” in policy decisions. Policy making is not necessarily a zero-sum game among these actors. When one set of actors wins, others may win as well, if their preferences are positively correlated with each other.
It turns out, in fact, that the preferences of average citizens are positively and fairly highly correlated, across issues, with the preferences of economic elites (refer to table 2). Rather often, average citizens and affluent citizens (our proxy for economic elites) want the same things from government. This bivariate correlation affects how we should interpret our later multivariate findings in terms of “winners” and “losers.” It also suggests a reason why serious scholars might keep adhering to both the Majoritarian Electoral Democracy and the Economic-Elite Domination theoretical traditions, even if one of them may be dead wrong in terms of causal impact. Ordinary citizens, for example, might often be observed to “win” (that is, to get their preferred policy outcomes) even if they had no independent effect whatsoever on policy making, if elites (with whom they often agree) actually prevail.
So the study is very clearly delineating between a rich
individual (aka, "economic elite") and an "average citizen." Iow, comparing an individual to an individual. But then they do something a bit strange. Note what they say next in regard to interest groups:
Interest groups do have substantial independent impacts on policy, and a few groups (particularly labor unions) represent average citizens’ views reasonably well. But the interest-group system as a whole does not.
So, the problem appears to be in regard to organizing, not necessarily in regard to elite vs. non-elite on an
individual level. The strange part:
Overall, net interest-group alignments are not significantly related to the preferences of average citizens. The net alignments of the most influential, business-oriented groups are negatively related to the average citizen’s wishes. So existing interest groups do not serve effectively as transmission belts for the wishes of the populace as a whole.
They're
grouping individuals (i.e., "average...populace as a whole"). They then do the same thing with "economic elites":
Furthermore, the preferences of economic elites (as measured by our proxy, the preferences of “affluent” citizens) have far more independent impact upon policy change than the preferences of average citizens do. To be sure, this does not mean that ordinary citizens always lose out; they fairly often get the policies they favor, but only because those policies happen also to be preferred by the economically-elite citizens who wield the actual influence.
So, the interests of "average" individuals--even though they are not part of any organized special interest group--are aligned with the interests of "affluent" individuals and both benefit from affluent influence. Doesn't that mean that they are effectively in the same special interest group, if unofficially and/or indirectly?
I get the point. One guy sitting on his ass in Queens isn't going to be heard. But then, he's not trying to be heard. He's sitting on his ass in Queens. The rich guy, however, is trying to be heard and taking steps to get heard. And when he is heard, his concerns almost always mirror those of the guy who is sitting on his ass in Queens, evidently. So how is that necessarily different than, say, a labor union? It's not like any
member of a labor union gets to be heard; only the leader of the union is the voice of the union (and they may or may not take the one guy's individual issues to a politician).
Iow, it's
representational.
And, of course, there is the issue of how, exactly, can 340 million voices all be heard if they aren't willing to organize into special interest groups and make the effort to send a representative....oh. Yeah. Their votes.
So, the guy sitting on his ass in Queens has at least several avenues to get his voice heard. One, vote. Two, harass his elected officials. Three, find some rich guy who shares his opinions and encourage him to harass his elected officials. Four, form a special interest group. Etc.
What he can't do, however, is just sit on his ass in Queens and somehow expect that this affords him a voice. At the very least, he has to get off his ass and make some noise.