I am not arguing that there wasn't a problem that needed to be addressed. That does not change the fact that it was addressed in a very flawed way. It would be one thing if it was understood as a temporary band aid, but in the decades since it has calcified into a permanent "solution". So much so that it is seen as the only way those issues CAN be addressed, and that any attempts at reform are inherently "racist". See all the hyperbole over "Jim Crow 2.0" and similar.
But that still sidesteps the issue: the Voting Rights Act only became necessary because “race-neutral” systems were repeatedly used in very non-neutral ways. Literacy tests, poll taxes, selective enforcement, racial gerrymandering, strategically closing polling places, etc., were all defended with supposedly neutral language too.
So when I hear "modern colorblind” arguments, I'm skeptical because history shows that neutrality on paper does not always translate to neutrality in practice. That doesn’t automatically make every reform racist, but it does explain why I'm cautious when protections created in response to very real abuses are weakened be an obviously bullshit argument.
America is certainly much different than it was in the 1960s. So much so that Obama won presidency twice, in a country that is only ~14% black. He also managed to secure the nomination because he did well in early states of Iowa and New Hampshire that are whiter than the country as a whole.
Today, there are five black US Senators, and the Governor of Maryland is also black, even though no US state in majority black. That works against the argument that a mandatory quota of black majority districts is somehow necessary for black representation.
In fact, by cultivating black candidates who appeal to a more diverse electorate on the level of House of Representatives (and even state legislature) level, we will get more politicians like Wes Moore and Barack Obama. What's wrong with that?
But that argument only proves America became
less racist than it was in the 1960s, not that race stopped mattering altogether or that the protections became unnecessary by default.
Obama winning twice doesn’t erase the historical reasons the Voting Rights Act existed any more than having successful Black athletes erased segregation. It just shows progress happened. The real question is whether the conditions that created the need for oversight completely disappeared, and I don’t think that’s as self-evident as you’re presenting it.
And honestly, using a handful of highly exceptional examples like Obama or Wes Moore can cut both ways. I could also argue their success partly demonstrates what happens when barriers are reduced and broader participation is protected in the first place.
Now unless I’m mistaken, districts already take demographics, geography, and communities into account in all kinds of ways. Pretending race can never be considered at all ignores how district maps actually function in practice.
Different communities often have different historical experiences, voting patterns, priorities, and concerns. Recognizing that reality is not the same thing as claiming one group is “better” or fundamentally separate from another, nor does it mean race is automatically the deciding factor. In many cases, these are simply communities made up largely of Black, Asian, or Latino residents with shared interests and concerns.
It’s really just an acknowledgment that representation and community interests are legitimate factors in how districts are drawn.
As for majority-Black districts, I don’t think the argument was ever “Black people are incapable of winning without quotas.” The concern was that without protections, map drawing and voting structures could be manipulated in ways that consistently dilute minority voting power while still appearing “neutral” on paper. History shows that absolutely happened before. Entire communities were effectively invisible during elections.
And if you haven’t noticed, after key parts of the Voting Rights Act were weakened by the Supreme Court, several states
immediately (even during a fucking election) began redrawing maps in ways that removed majority-Black districts. That’s precisely why I remain skeptical of purely “colorblind” approaches to voting law.
Do you really not find it odd that mapmakers are intentionally avoiding the creation of Black districts while simultaneously claiming race is not being used as a decisive factor?
