mojorising said:
There has recently been social acceptance of homosexual relationships where none previously existed. Some homosexuals want similar legal structures to that of the legal notion of 'marriage'. I support this idea entirely.
Some homosexuals want the definition of heterosexual marriage changed from a 'man and a woman' to 'any 2 people'. I am against this proposition as I maintain that there are significant differences between homosexual and heterosexual partnerships and homosexuals should not be entitled to the same rights in relation to child-rearing (partly since we don't know what causes homosexuality yet). I think homosexuality is repeating developmental error (not a selected trait) which we will one day understand and be able to control (this is not proven but neither is the evolutionary explanation).
A few points:
5. It seems that you do
not want the legal structures to be so similar, if you do not want to give gay men the same rights in relation to child-rearing (it seems you also want to remove some of the ones they already have).
6. It's not clear what your rationale for opposing the use of the word "marriage" in the case of two women is. Some clarification might be useful, so that those who reply to you don't need to consider several possibilities (e.g., if you hold X1, then Y1; if you hold X2, then Y2), which only makes the posts a lot longer than they would need to be if you could just explain what you actually hold.
7. You say "Some homosexuals want the definition of heterosexual marriage changed from a 'man and a woman' to 'any 2 people'." In reality:
7.a. There is no evidence of anyone who would want to change the definition in that manner, which would allow child marriage, marriage of people regardless of mental illnesses, etc. But that aside...
7.b. Many people - most of them heterosexuals - want to change the
legal definition of "marriage" in Australia to include same-sex couples. That definition has already changed in many other jurisdictions, including the UK, Canada, New Zealand, and Ireland (though it hasn't taken effect in Ireland yet), and part of the United States.
7.c. When it comes to the colloquial, non-legal use of the word "marriage", in English it already includes same-sex marriages, since most native English speakers would call a legally valid marriage between two women or two men who was celebrated in Canada, the United Kingdom, or Maryland, "marriage". In fact, that would be the case in Australia as well, even if those marriages aren't legally valid in Australia.
Now, while your semantic arguments are obscure, I guess you might be trying to say that Native English speakers who call those relationships (which are legally marriages in other jurisdictions, but not in Australia) "marriage" are making a mistake - at least if they're using "marriage" in the alleged colloquial sense in English -, so that even in the sense in which those people regularly use the word "marriage", those relationships are not marriages.
It would be akin to say that - for example - that if most Native English speakers claimed that it's morally good to criminalize homosexual sex, they would be making false claims, rather than using the expression "morally good" in a way that applies to criminalizing homosexual sex. But
if that's what you're trying to claim (as I said, I do not know; your semantic claims and arguments are obscure), then you would have to provide some evidence of that - linguistic evidence about how native English speakers use the word "marriage" nowadays. The evidence seems frankly against your semantic view. Without any such evidence, trying to argue about how some words were used in connection with some pair-bonding relationships isn't going to work, since that would not be relevant to the claim you're trying to support.
8. Semantics aside, it's not clear which child-rearing rights you would want to take away from gay men. Does that include rearing their own biological children, or only the right to adopt?
9. Also, you have not explained why the
causes of male homosexuality would be relevant in this context. When it comes to the child rearing rights of a man, what seems relevant is the psychological makeup of the man who intends to rear their children (apart from factors like money to sustain them, which are irrelevant to this debate), not what caused him to have the psychological makeup that he does have. So, knowing more about the causes would only be indirectly relevant, to the extent that it tells us something about the present psychological makeup, but there are much more direct ways of assessing a person's psychology.
10. Finally, you said earlier that you wanted to take the right to adopt away from gay men because of an allegedly increased risk of child sexual abuse, but then again, as I pointed out, you've not provided evidence of that increased risk, and in any case, even if you did provide it, the fact remains that statistically, there is also an increased risk from women to straight men, so there is the question of why you would accept subjected kids to the increased risk from women to straight men, but not to the alleged increased risk from straight men to gay men.