Still searching for excuses why high deficits are necessary.
What is the reason we began running high deficits in the 1930s? and basically have kept doing so up to the present?
No one has given any good reason why we need to do this, or why it was good to start doing this at the beginning of the Depression. No one has shown that it has produced a good economic outcome. It's obviously driven by the belief that it produces "jobs! jobs! job!" and thus counteracts recession, and there is no reason other than this that everyone agrees on, despite various theories to explain it.
The "jobs! jobs! jobs!" reason breaks down in the long run. It is undeniable that there is a short-term "jobs! jobs! jobs!" benefit from the deficits, which are an "economic stimulus" to give the economy a short-term kick in the butt and cause some new jobs to be created. And this benefit might last for a few years, if more deficits are added in order to keep the "stimulus" going.
But it has to break down finally and result in no net "jobs! jobs! jobs!" or in a very small number only which cost far more than their value, or even in a net loss of jobs in the end.
A
stimulus (deficit) at point A is offset by an
antistimulus at point B, when debt is repaid:
A █ (deficit/stimulus) → ------------
B █ (debt payback) → ---------- C →
The debt theory says that those who pay the loan at point A would have spent the money slowly, so taking it from them and having the government spend it speeds it up and increases the money flow, causing the economy to charge faster and create jobs.
But this breaks down at point B where the money is repaid to the lender, because this payback has the opposite effect of the stimulus at point A. Whatever stimulus might occur at point A when the extra money is injected is reversed at point B, where that same amount is withdrawn from the government and paid back to the lenders, who spend it slower.
All the debt is repaid, in varying amounts, in the subsequent years -- whether it's 5 years later, or 7 or 10 or 15, or 3. Playing with the numbers, or shifting the years when it's repaid, is all guesswork. There's no way to determine that somehow the stimulus at point A will have a greater impact on the economy than the payback at point B.
The only way to prevent the point B payback from reversing the point A stimulus is to do still another stimulus at point B (or point C or D, etc.). So ongoing deficits might keep the original "jobs! jobs! jobs!" stimulus going, i.e., keep the original jobs created, but not create any new jobs unless the amount of the deficit is increased. So, continually increasing the size of the deficits is the only way to cause further new job creation. Otherwise, if the deficits remain at about the same level, this only keeps the earlier jobs going a little longer. If the deficits decrease, then jobs created earlier are eliminated by the antistimulus at point B, because any reduction of the deficits later is an antistimulus undoing the stimulus at point A, because the paybacks there take more away from the government than it receives in new debt.
So the jobs created are real, but temporary unless continually subsidized by new stimulus deficits to keep them going. So this debt practice is always an instant-gratification benefit only, not causing long-term job creation, but only short-term.
But meanwhile it costs the taxpayers $200-$400 billion annually in interest payments, as a cost for running this debt. This interest cost is also an ANTIstimulus, because it is paid to lenders who spend it at a slower pace than the government would spend it.
So there are 2 forms of antistimulus happening, to offset the stimulus deficits at point A.Together, these cause a greater impact than the original stimulus, which is a smaller dollar amount than the debt payback + the interest cost.
The debt theory might claim the ever-increasing deficits + other factors somehow give a greater kick or greater BUMP to the economy than the negative impact of the payback and interest cost. But that's only conjecture and not based on any real math or empirical measurement of the results, or even sound theory. There is no way to prove that the point A stimulus is greater than the point B antistimulus and the interest cost. The most reasonable guess is that the ANTIstimulus is greater because it's a higher amount in dollars paid back (antistimulus) than the amount received in stimulus from the deficits.
But continuing the deficits in perpetuity is done for the instant-gratification of the new jobs, which are always "a sure thing" at the time, so that the near future will get this extra kick to the economy, meaning more jobs for the next year or 2 or 3 than would be the case without the new stimulus.
So there's always this immediate instant-gratification benefit from each new deficit. But at the same time there is also the damage from the ANTIstimulus as well, originating from earlier deficits (5 or 10 years earlier), but which can't be eliminated, because the debt obligations are paid no matter what.
So the ultimate result from the long series of deficits is a long-term ANTIstimulus effect which offsets the many stimulus deficits, and yet the only current choice each time is to have the new stimulus or not to have it, while the earlier antistimulus is mandatory. And the overall long-term result is a net cost of trillions in interest cost and probably a net ANTIstimulus over all the years of the deficits, though it's impossible to calculate the exact impact of each stimulus and antistimulus.
Some economists pretend to know when is the right time for a new stimulus, thinking they can make these happen in a way as to create an overall net stimulus, long-term, but these economists are quacks, and there is no scientific agreement among them as to the proper timing of the deficits, and also there is no indication that the fiscal policies of Congress are determined by any scientific calculations by economists knowing what is the proper timing of the stimulus deficits.
Only a fool imagines the stimulus deficits are done according to some scientific plan which circumvents the inevitable ANTIstimulus effects from the debt paybacks at point B and the interest payments.
So the only rationale for the deficits is the instant gratification (which is the one absolute certainty) from them, and just putting off until later the long-term damage to be done.
But other phony reasons are offered for why the deficits are necessary.
Why did the US start running repeated high deficits in the 1930s? And why is it that the only deficits before 1930 were for war only, but from that point onward they've been almost always for "stimulating the economy"? or to "create jobs"? Why did this change take place beginning with Hoover-FDR, and ever since we've had to run chronic deficits, virtually every year?
We deficit spent in the '30s to combat the Depression, . . .
But why didn't we need to do this in 1921, and in 1893 and 1873, when there were Depressions also, arguably just as bad at the same early point of the economic downturns?
Each time the economy worked its way out of the depressions/recessions without the need for high government deficits. What evidence is there that the new deficit policy of the 1930s brought about any improvement over the policy of the earlier depressions/recessions? The 1930s depression/recession turned out to be the worst and longest, even though it had these deficits. How do we know the deficits didn't help cause it to turn out worse?
A proper analysis of the effect of such deficits shows that their long-term effect is negative and not positive. I.e., that its only benefit is a short-term instant-gratification result.
. . . then entered WWII when a great deal of public money was spent.
Same as earlier wars, like the Civil War which spent a great deal of public money. But then we gradually paid down that debt in the following years, including through the depression of the 1870s, instead of running up new debt like we did in the 1930s. Why was it necessary to add these new deficits, way beyond anything earlier, for non-war purposes, from the 1950s to the present, instead of keeping down the debt and just paying down the war debt in those years, as we had done prior to the 1930s?
Since then, the dollar has become the global reserve currency. So a lot of them are required.
No they're not. This is no excuse for running up these high deficits. The reason always given why we can't "balance the budget" is that it would cause a recession.
Just admit that the reason is the "jobs! jobs! jobs!" babble, and go from there. It's for short-term instant-gratification job creation, and nothing to do with the "global reserve currency" jargon.
The circulation of dollars is not the point. Those money and banking practices can still be debated as to whether they produced net benefit or net harm. Bad debt per se made people worse off, not better. Even if the Federal Reserve brought some improvements, how did the chronic deficits beginning in the 1930s improve anything?
By getting money into the hands of the public.
You're talking about massive deflation. It is only theoretical that there was a need to get more money into people's hands. But if there was such a need, it is not true that the high federal deficits were the only way to do this.
We have no reason to believe that this method didn't itself cause even worse damage later, thus undoing any benefit from getting new money into circulation. There was also deflation in the 19th century, and no high deficits were necessary to put money into circulation.
Even if some special measures to increase money were needed, new budget deficits were not necessary to accomplish it. And such need to increase money does not explain why we have continued to run high deficits ever since the 1930s, even when deflation has not been a problem.
Is it to PROMOTE PRIVATE SAVINGS that government needs to run high deficits?
Do you have figures showing that there were no private savings in the late 1990s when the gov't "taxed back" all of its spending [balanced the budget]?
I never said there were no private savings. I said that in the aggregate private financial assets diminished.
Everything goes up and down. Why should it be the government's role to choose what goes up and what goes down?
It's only a theory that deficits cause more savings, not an established economic fact. But even if there's some validity to it, it does not follow that government should artificially prop up savings above whatever level it's at. No one has proved that the private savings rate is lower than it should be, or that artificial schemes are necessary to prop it up higher, to make some theorists happy.
It's not true that citizens are clamoring for high public deficits in order that they can save more.
So in theory private savings might be pressured downward if the budget is balanced or in surplus (not a proven fact, but maybe in theory). Or rather, a deficit might induce artificially-higher savings. Even if this is granted, why is it the government's job to promote artificial savings? Obviously there's a limit to savings or to anything else, depending on conditions. Why is it necessary for government to artificially induce savings beyond the natural level dictated by the circumstances?
In your fevered mind, why does the govt exist? I think most would say it exists to serve the public interest. By and large, the public thinks saving is a good idea. So we have a system that incentivizes it.
No, the public has never demanded high deficits to incentivize savings. Or other crackpot notions. This is a theory from one or two economists whose main crusade is to promote deficits and thus find excuses why deficits might be good. Economists generally do not promote the theory that we need high public deficits in order to promote more savings.
Even if there's a slight merit to the theory, this obviously is not the reason for the high deficits, because we began the high deficits in the 1930s when this theory did not exist. We're doing these deficits today for basically the same reason as 80 years ago, and that reason is the "jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs! jobs!" impulse, and you should stop pretending it's because of some widespread clamor for more savings.
So then we agree that there is no demonstrable need for the government to manipulate something to boost the savings rate up above its natural level, and thus no need for these high deficits. There is still some savings during a time of a balanced budget or even a surplus, and there are market forces to attract lenders if the need for them is high, without the need for govt to run up deficits to artificially boost the savings rate, even if it is lower during a balanced budget period (which has not been proved, but theoretically might be the case).
There is no natural level.
The level it would be if government leaves it alone without pretending there is some level of saving which has been proved scientifically as the optimum level, or the absolute ideal level of savings which God has ordained as proper for human society.
It's a political choice - do you want citizens to save or not.
They do save, whether the government runs deficits or not. No one has proved what the perfect level of savings is supposed to be.
No citizens have held a march on Washington or City Hall to demand higher deficits in order that they can save more. What they have marched for, again and again, is "jobs! jobs! jobs!" and the politicians give them this, as a short-term quick-fix, by running up deficits, and so impress voters and make speeches claiming they saved someone's job. And they lose no votes when those jobs are eliminated 10 years later because of the ANTIstimulus caused by having to pay back the earlier debt, or when new debt is needed to keep the "jobs! jobs! jobs!" frenzy going a few years longer.
It's Wacko Economics to say it's about whether we want citizens to save or not.
It's not true that the gov't must run up chronic deficits in order for there to be private savings. There have been private savings in years when the gov't ran surpluses. If perhaps those savings were somewhat less than in the deficit years -- then so what? Who says how much exactly the private sector must save? Who are the overlord barons who presume to dictate this?
Congress.
But who are the experts/quacks/witchdoctors pretending to give Congress the scientific data proving how much the private sector must save?
It's not true that Economists or other experts are giving such scientific findings to Congress to make such decisions. This is not why Congress keeps running these deficits.
Can you find one Senator or Representative who has given a speech announcing the need for higher deficits in order to incentivize more private savings, or citing economists with scientific data proving the need for higher deficits to produce higher savings?
If you search hard enough, you can probably find a Quack saying such a thing. There are theories relating budget deficits to private savings, but it's theory only, and empirical data does not show a regular predictable pattern of it.
http://philschatz.com/economics-book/contents/m48808.html (There might be a detectable irregular and unpredictable pattern of this.) And this is probably because the real effect of this, if there's merit to the theory, is too small to measure and so is irrelevant in practice.
But you can probably find one wacko congressmember who says such nonsense to try to justify higher deficits. Maybe even citing your guru Wynne Godley and his offbeat "sectoral balances" theory, which is not a part of mainstream economics.
When did Congress generally adopt this savings theory as the reason why higher deficits are necessary?