Let me address some of those points:
First, finding a definition of "man" and "woman" in terms of other words that respects the meaning in everyday usage is at least extremely difficult, and perhaps not even doable. This is not because of any particular property of the words "man" and "woman". One would have the same trouble with "fish", "car", "bug", etc., and most words. Their meaning is determined by usage, but it seems what people mean is (generally) "one of those" (pointing at a man/woman/fish/car/bug).
Second, it is not the case that I seem to hold the position that "man" and "woman" should be reserved for some biological properties of our bodies, at least if you had read my analysis of the meaning of the term, I actually cast doubt on that as a matter of meaning. For example, let's say that in a movie, Alice and Bob swap bodies. I don't think this is possible if they're humans, but when it comes to the
meaning of the terms, even some impossible scenarios can be used properly. Even so, a question is whether, given what "one of those" men/women actually happen to be, whether it's metaphysically possible for a person with male sexual organs to be a woman, and if it's metaphysically possible, whether it's actual. But I have considered this and related matters in reasonable amount of detail in some of my posts (see
https://talkfreethought.org/showthread.php?12315-Danica-Roem&p=474533&viewfull=1#post474533,
https://talkfreethought.org/showthread.php?12315-Danica-Roem&p=474639&viewfull=1#post474639,
https://talkfreethought.org/showthread.php?12315-Danica-Roem&p=474706&viewfull=1#post474706), and I'm willing to go into further detail if someone were to ask me about them, about my position on specific issues, or if someone were to present an argument challenging my points. But none of that has happened, and though I appreciate you want to discuss the issue, it seems clear that you do not understand my position and the reasons for my assessments (otherwise, you would not say that "Angra (and some with her) seems to hold the position that ”man” and ”woman” should be reserved for some bioogical properties of our bodies.")
Side note: To clarify any potential misunderstanding, I'm actually a man, though I don't really care what pronoun you use to talk about me.
That does not seem to be the case. Their position seems to be all over the place, but in any event, it does not seem in line with your hypothesis. Let me provide two strong pieces of evidence against your hypothesis about what their position seems to be:
1. In the past, Caitlyn Jenner was called "Bruce" by everyone else, and by Jenner too. And Jenner functioned socially as men generally do. So, going by the "social context" hypothesis, Jenner would have been a man before Jenner claimed to be a woman. Granted, some of the posters here thought that that was precisely the case, but that was before I pointed out to them that the hypothesis that Jenner was a man and became later a woman (as opposed to having been always a woman) is not consistent with standard claims by transgender activists and leftists in general. The claims that Jenner changed his gender have not been repeated after I pointed that out (well, not by the posters to whom I pointed that out).
2. I have been repeatedly accused of ignoring scientific evidence about brains. But if the matter depended on how people function in a social context, the issue of evidence from brains should not arise, as there is no paper or other study connecting any of the findings about brains with specific functioning in a social context.
Maybe you have a solution, or you mean something else by "social context". If so, please clarify.
Juma said:
I think the solution to the matter is to go with the usage of these words that makes most sense.
Actually, the solution is to go with whatever the evidence indicates the words actually mean, and if their referent is determined by how empirical facts turn out to be (e.g., water and H2O, for any philsophically inclined readers), then on those empirical facts, and so on. If that's what you mean by "makes most sense", sure, let's go with that.
Juma said:
Since the use of these concepts in everyday usage (pronomes etc) it makes most sense to relate to gender, not wheter the person has a pecker.
If a woman's brain were to be put in the rest-of-the-body of a man, at least at first the individual would remain a woman, and vice versa (whether this is nomologically possible I do not know, but it's not the point). So, whether a person has a penis is not decisive (also, eunuchs are men).
But that aside, here you say it makes most sense "to relate to gender". But what does that mean?
It appears that you're siding what you believe is the "rest of the gang" hypothesis. But that hypothesis is not true.
Moreover, would you be willing to say that Jenner was in fact a man, and then become a woman (based on the "how we function in a social context") theory?
I know, you might say that you mean something else by "social context". If you tell me how to determine whether a person is a man or a woman in accordance to your theory, I offer to test the theory further. And just in case, I'm not asking how we usually determine that, but what factor or factors you propose to be decisive, or if you have no proposal, at least how I could go about learning the meaning of those terms.