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The dumb questions thread

The other day a non-science show made a reference to news about a comet spewing out alcohol.

Is this true?

Does this mean life off Earth, or can alcohol be formed without bacteria?

Also, can we bring the comet into a parking orbit and install a tap?
 
The other day a non-science show made a reference to news about a comet spewing out alcohol.

Is this true?

Does this mean life off Earth, or can alcohol be formed without bacteria?

Also, can we bring the comet into a parking orbit and install a tap?

Ethanol is a fairly simple molecule, and methanol even more so, so these are readily formed in space without the need for biological systems.

Hydrogen is everywhere; so a free Carbon atom in space is bound to get hydrogen, or other carbon atoms, stuck to it, making methane very common, and higher alkanes fairly common, particularly where the number of carbons in the chain is small. Hydroxyl is similarly common, as oxygen also tends to get hydrogen stuck to it; and hydroxyl plus alkanes will give alcohols. Given the amount of time and the number of atoms out there, basically any stable molecule containing common elements is out there; the smaller molecules and those containing the more common elements are most commonly found - H2, Hydroxyl, all kinds of hydrocarbons, alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, all the stuff we think of as 'organic' chemistry.

The reason it was thought for so long that life was required to make organic chemicals is that on Earth, such chemicals are almost invariably associated with life (because life is so damn ubiquitous, and eats almost anything with carbon compounds in it); and because there was a psychological desire stemming from religion to believe that life was special - that there was a sharp divide between 'life science' and 'physical science'. Friedrich Wöhler disproved this hypothesis in 1828, when he demonstrated the synthesis of urea from inorganic precursors (Cyanate and Ammonia).

Capturing a comet and bringing it into orbit would be very hard, fairly dangerous, and hugely expensive - and the alcohol would be pretty contaminated with other chemicals that would likely be quite unpleasant. If you want alcohol, it's easier just to get yeast to ferment some sugars down here. Or go to Liquorland.
 
Do I need to do all the recommended steps to repair a car scratch?

I found the exact matching paint for my car but I'm really lazy and don't want to sand, prime, color, and clearcoat my scratches.

Do I need to do all the recommended steps to repair a car scratch? Or can I just sand out the rust and then brush in some matching paint and call it good.

More details:
I have a not so great car that works great for my purposes. I paid $1000 for it two years ago and I'm planning on selling it again in about 1 more year for about the same price I paid for it.
Anyway, the car had more than a few scratches on it when I bought it, but I never bothered to check just how bad they were. The other day I noticed that there was a little bit of rust growing in a few of the scratches and so I felt motivated to repair them a bit to prevent major rust damage. I really don't care about the appearance of the car too much, I just want to prevent or sufficiently delay major damage due to neglect.
 
Was thinking about this today:

Do scientists have a good idea of what causes homosexuality or no?

To lay-people there doesn't seem to be consensus, but I assume we've got this one nailed down.
 
Was thinking about this today:

Do scientists have a good idea of what causes homosexuality or no?

To lay-people there doesn't seem to be consensus, but I assume we've got this one nailed down.

I think that's a poor assumption.

We know in the very broadest terms what causes sexual attraction - 'Hormones'

We even know to some extent which hormones - Oxytocin is clearly very important, for example.

What causes people to be sexually attracted to certain characteristics, or to certain individuals? I don't believe anyone knows. It's very difficult to even develop sensible protocols to study such a thing. Asking people what they find attractive results in a long list of apparently unrelated stuff, some of which is contradicted by their actions; the act of trying to observe people's actions is liable to introduce confounding factors, and double blind studies of people's sexual behaviour - ie spying on people - are generally considered unethical.

It's not even clear to me that 'homosexuality' is a useful category. If John has ten sexual partners, and all of them are men, we call him 'homosexual'; but how useful is that as a label? What if all of those ten partners are also slim, blond, muscular, introverts with an interest in fine art? Why is their gender so important that it defines who John is, but their other characteristics are considered trivial?

People are not attracted to gender per se; I have never met a person who finds every single member of a given gender sexually attractive. People are quite picky about their sexual partners - some more so than others - and gender is just one of the myriad characteristics people use when deciding whether or not a given individual is attractive to them. If an obese person only dates slim women, is he or she heteroadiposal? If he or she only dates other obese people, are they a homoadiposal couple? Is this a valuable way to categorise people?

Obviously if long-term pair bonding occurs in a species (as it does to some extent with humans), there is some evolutionary pressure towards heterosexual partnerships; There is also evolutionary pressure towards abandonment of infertile partnerships - but for some reason, we decide that heterosexuality is 'normal' and that ditching your partner just because you haven't had kids after being together for a while is 'not normal'. So this is not about appealing to nature (which is fallacious anyway - 'natural' neither implies 'normal' nor 'right') - the elevation of gender specific sexuality as an important and even defining characteristic is a social convention, not a natural law.

It seems that the specifics of what people find attractive in a partner are mostly genetic, with the genotype influencing the endocrine system phenotype such that most people are less attracted by their own gender than by the other; But as with most genetics, the details are obviously hugely complex. Gregor Mendel's neat idea of dominant and recessive gene pairs linked directly to one phenotypic characteristic are very rare indeed. Most traits are mediated by complex interactions of large numbers of genes, with epigenetic and even endocrine feedback loops, and this is particularly true of gender - the huge morphological and physiological differences between men and women all stem from a tiny number of genes on the Y chromosome, which if present, turn on and off all the vast numbers of other genes needed to make a male, rather than an female. This process is highly complex, and often incomplete; Male <--> Female is a continuum, with concentrations of individuals at each end, but a sizeable minority somewhere in the middle.

In short - this is a hugely complex and poorly understood system; and we are not even able to say for sure whether the term 'homosexuality' refers to something objectively real. If John has had ten sexual partners, all of them male, does this information allow us to be 100% certain that his next choice of sexual partner will not be female? I don't think it does - it seems likely, but it is far from a certainty. If his eleventh partner is female, does that tell us anything about the likely gender of his twelfth? Does that suddenly change his status from homosexual to heterosexual? Or to bisexual?

Never mind what causes homosexuality - I don't think we have even nailed down a useful definition of what homosexuality IS.
 
The other day a non-science show made a reference to news about a comet spewing out alcohol.

Is this true?

Does this mean life off Earth, or can alcohol be formed without bacteria?

Also, can we bring the comet into a parking orbit and install a tap?

Ethanol is a fairly simple molecule, and methanol even more so, so these are readily formed in space without the need for biological systems.

Hydrogen is everywhere; so a free Carbon atom in space is bound to get hydrogen, or other carbon atoms, stuck to it, making methane very common, and higher alkanes fairly common, particularly where the number of carbons in the chain is small. Hydroxyl is similarly common, as oxygen also tends to get hydrogen stuck to it; and hydroxyl plus alkanes will give alcohols. Given the amount of time and the number of atoms out there, basically any stable molecule containing common elements is out there; the smaller molecules and those containing the more common elements are most commonly found - H2, Hydroxyl, all kinds of hydrocarbons, alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, all the stuff we think of as 'organic' chemistry.

The reason it was thought for so long that life was required to make organic chemicals is that on Earth, such chemicals are almost invariably associated with life (because life is so damn ubiquitous, and eats almost anything with carbon compounds in it); and because there was a psychological desire stemming from religion to believe that life was special - that there was a sharp divide between 'life science' and 'physical science'. Friedrich Wöhler disproved this hypothesis in 1828, when he demonstrated the synthesis of urea from inorganic precursors (Cyanate and Ammonia).

Capturing a comet and bringing it into orbit would be very hard, fairly dangerous, and hugely expensive - and the alcohol would be pretty contaminated with other chemicals that would likely be quite unpleasant. If you want alcohol, it's easier just to get yeast to ferment some sugars down here. Or go to Liquorland.

Thank you.

And ... damn!
 
Was thinking about this today:

Do scientists have a good idea of what causes homosexuality or no?

To lay-people there doesn't seem to be consensus, but I assume we've got this one nailed down.

I think that's a poor assumption.

We know in the very broadest terms what causes sexual attraction - 'Hormones'

We even know to some extent which hormones - Oxytocin is clearly very important, for example.

What causes people to be sexually attracted to certain characteristics, or to certain individuals? I don't believe anyone knows. It's very difficult to even develop sensible protocols to study such a thing. Asking people what they find attractive results in a long list of apparently unrelated stuff, some of which is contradicted by their actions; the act of trying to observe people's actions is liable to introduce confounding factors, and double blind studies of people's sexual behaviour - ie spying on people - are generally considered unethical.

It's not even clear to me that 'homosexuality' is a useful category. If John has ten sexual partners, and all of them are men, we call him 'homosexual'; but how useful is that as a label? What if all of those ten partners are also slim, blond, muscular, introverts with an interest in fine art? Why is their gender so important that it defines who John is, but their other characteristics are considered trivial?

People are not attracted to gender per se; I have never met a person who finds every single member of a given gender sexually attractive. People are quite picky about their sexual partners - some more so than others - and gender is just one of the myriad characteristics people use when deciding whether or not a given individual is attractive to them. If an obese person only dates slim women, is he or she heteroadiposal? If he or she only dates other obese people, are they a homoadiposal couple? Is this a valuable way to categorise people?

Obviously if long-term pair bonding occurs in a species (as it does to some extent with humans), there is some evolutionary pressure towards heterosexual partnerships; There is also evolutionary pressure towards abandonment of infertile partnerships - but for some reason, we decide that heterosexuality is 'normal' and that ditching your partner just because you haven't had kids after being together for a while is 'not normal'. So this is not about appealing to nature (which is fallacious anyway - 'natural' neither implies 'normal' nor 'right') - the elevation of gender specific sexuality as an important and even defining characteristic is a social convention, not a natural law.

It seems that the specifics of what people find attractive in a partner are mostly genetic, with the genotype influencing the endocrine system phenotype such that most people are less attracted by their own gender than by the other; But as with most genetics, the details are obviously hugely complex. Gregor Mendel's neat idea of dominant and recessive gene pairs linked directly to one phenotypic characteristic are very rare indeed. Most traits are mediated by complex interactions of large numbers of genes, with epigenetic and even endocrine feedback loops, and this is particularly true of gender - the huge morphological and physiological differences between men and women all stem from a tiny number of genes on the Y chromosome, which if present, turn on and off all the vast numbers of other genes needed to make a male, rather than an female. This process is highly complex, and often incomplete; Male <--> Female is a continuum, with concentrations of individuals at each end, but a sizeable minority somewhere in the middle.

In short - this is a hugely complex and poorly understood system; and we are not even able to say for sure whether the term 'homosexuality' refers to something objectively real. If John has had ten sexual partners, all of them male, does this information allow us to be 100% certain that his next choice of sexual partner will not be female? I don't think it does - it seems likely, but it is far from a certainty. If his eleventh partner is female, does that tell us anything about the likely gender of his twelfth? Does that suddenly change his status from homosexual to heterosexual? Or to bisexual?

Never mind what causes homosexuality - I don't think we have even nailed down a useful definition of what homosexuality IS.

Thanks for the reply.

That's a lot to respond to with a lot of good points, but some of the musings that come to mind is that 'homosexuality' still must be a discrete and real thing. I mean, philosophically, it's a difficult life, so there would be no good reason for a person to *choose* to be homosexual, so you'd suspect that people who are homosexual are definitely oriented that way, or at least oriented that way to a strong degree.

What I'm getting at with that is that there must be a real cause to orient people that way, and to orient the majority of the population toward heterosexuality, or whatever sexual orientation they lean toward. I don't accept that it's random and non-genetic.

In terms of it being a useful label or not, I agree with your sentiment but I'm not so much interested in the social side of my question, just what specifically causes a person to orient toward their own gender. You'd assume genetics, but then how genetics diverge would become the question.
 
I think that's a poor assumption.

We know in the very broadest terms what causes sexual attraction - 'Hormones'

We even know to some extent which hormones - Oxytocin is clearly very important, for example.

What causes people to be sexually attracted to certain characteristics, or to certain individuals? I don't believe anyone knows. It's very difficult to even develop sensible protocols to study such a thing. Asking people what they find attractive results in a long list of apparently unrelated stuff, some of which is contradicted by their actions; the act of trying to observe people's actions is liable to introduce confounding factors, and double blind studies of people's sexual behaviour - ie spying on people - are generally considered unethical.

It's not even clear to me that 'homosexuality' is a useful category. If John has ten sexual partners, and all of them are men, we call him 'homosexual'; but how useful is that as a label? What if all of those ten partners are also slim, blond, muscular, introverts with an interest in fine art? Why is their gender so important that it defines who John is, but their other characteristics are considered trivial?

People are not attracted to gender per se; I have never met a person who finds every single member of a given gender sexually attractive. People are quite picky about their sexual partners - some more so than others - and gender is just one of the myriad characteristics people use when deciding whether or not a given individual is attractive to them. If an obese person only dates slim women, is he or she heteroadiposal? If he or she only dates other obese people, are they a homoadiposal couple? Is this a valuable way to categorise people?

Obviously if long-term pair bonding occurs in a species (as it does to some extent with humans), there is some evolutionary pressure towards heterosexual partnerships; There is also evolutionary pressure towards abandonment of infertile partnerships - but for some reason, we decide that heterosexuality is 'normal' and that ditching your partner just because you haven't had kids after being together for a while is 'not normal'. So this is not about appealing to nature (which is fallacious anyway - 'natural' neither implies 'normal' nor 'right') - the elevation of gender specific sexuality as an important and even defining characteristic is a social convention, not a natural law.

It seems that the specifics of what people find attractive in a partner are mostly genetic, with the genotype influencing the endocrine system phenotype such that most people are less attracted by their own gender than by the other; But as with most genetics, the details are obviously hugely complex. Gregor Mendel's neat idea of dominant and recessive gene pairs linked directly to one phenotypic characteristic are very rare indeed. Most traits are mediated by complex interactions of large numbers of genes, with epigenetic and even endocrine feedback loops, and this is particularly true of gender - the huge morphological and physiological differences between men and women all stem from a tiny number of genes on the Y chromosome, which if present, turn on and off all the vast numbers of other genes needed to make a male, rather than an female. This process is highly complex, and often incomplete; Male <--> Female is a continuum, with concentrations of individuals at each end, but a sizeable minority somewhere in the middle.

In short - this is a hugely complex and poorly understood system; and we are not even able to say for sure whether the term 'homosexuality' refers to something objectively real. If John has had ten sexual partners, all of them male, does this information allow us to be 100% certain that his next choice of sexual partner will not be female? I don't think it does - it seems likely, but it is far from a certainty. If his eleventh partner is female, does that tell us anything about the likely gender of his twelfth? Does that suddenly change his status from homosexual to heterosexual? Or to bisexual?

Never mind what causes homosexuality - I don't think we have even nailed down a useful definition of what homosexuality IS.

Thanks for the reply.

That's a lot to respond to with a lot of good points, but some of the musings that come to mind is that 'homosexuality' still must be a discrete and real thing. I mean, philosophically, it's a difficult life, so there would be no good reason for a person to *choose* to be homosexual, so you'd suspect that people who are homosexual are definitely oriented that way, or at least oriented that way to a strong degree.

What I'm getting at with that is that there must be a real cause to orient people that way, and to orient the majority of the population toward heterosexuality, or whatever sexual orientation they lean toward. I don't accept that it's random and non-genetic.

In terms of it being a useful label or not, I agree with your sentiment but I'm not so much interested in the social side of my question, just what specifically causes a person to orient toward their own gender. You'd assume genetics, but then how genetics diverge would become the question.

I imagine that the brain develops in such a way as to find certain characteristics more attractive in a potential mate than others; and that this development is usually driven by the same cascade of genetic switches that determines morphology. Just as some of those switches end up pointing the 'wrong' way for morphological development, leading to a variety of physiological gender identities - people born with both male and female reproductive organs, for example - they can also end up pointing in the 'wrong' way in brain development, leading to attractions to characteristics typical of both sexes, or to the same sex, rather than to the opposite sex. Psychological influences cannot be so easily ruled out though; philosophically, having PTSD is a difficult life, and there is no reason to *choose* to have shell-shock; but that doesn't mean that shell-shock must be genetic. People have all manner of weird fetishes, and these are clearly not genetic, so there must be some non-genetic components to sexuality. Just because the trigger for a behaviour is environmental, that does not necessarily mean that the brain's response to that trigger is a choice.

Almost everyone has a stack of visual cues that make them go 'Wow!' or 'Meh.' when they see a person who is a potential mate. Anecdotally, these are pretty varied even amongst people who share the same sexual orientation and gender - there are 'breast men' and 'ass men', for example - And this is almost certainly not random, and probably is largely genetic, although there is also obviously some non-genetic component as well. There also seems to be a strong attraction in some individuals towards 'otherness' - people who are dissimilar from their immediate family/tribe/culture - as exemplified by the 'sexy foreign accent' trope.

I am certain that homosexuality is a real thing, but I would very much challenge the idea that it is discrete - sexuality is clearly a spectrum, not a binary (or even trinary homo-; bi-; or hetero-) choice.

The genetics is hugely complex, and seems not to 'diverge' at all, in the sense that I think you are using the term. Everyone gets about 50% of their genetic make-up from each parent, so there cannot be a single gene driving attraction to men vs attraction to women (if there was, homosexuality would occur in 50% of the population); And there simply is not enough room on the sex chromosomes themselves (particularly the Y, which is tiny) to code for all the physiological differences between the sexes, much less the psychological ones.

The genes for all of the organs and sexual characteristics of both genders must be present in every human. In most cases, only one set is expressed, and this is usually determined by the presence or absence of a handful of genes on the Y Chromosome. Those genes don't carry enough information to code for all of the differences, so they must instead code for signalling that tells the rest of the genome which bits to switch off (or turn down) and which bits to switch on (or turn up). When some genes (or some tissues) don't get the message, or get the wrong message, you end up with the wide variety of both sexual morphologies and sexual preferences that we see in reality.
 
Idly wondering if Cosmic inflation is going to remain a viable explanatory model considering the past glitch with measurements regarding cosmic dust and the failure of Kepler to confirm...or maybe string theory is the future.
 
Almost everyone has a stack of visual cues that make them go 'Wow!' or 'Meh.' when they see a person who is a potential mate. Anecdotally, these are pretty varied even amongst people who share the same sexual orientation and gender - there are 'breast men' and 'ass men', for example...
Q: 'Are you a "breast man", or an "ass man"?'

A: 'Yes'.
 
Idly wondering if Cosmic inflation is going to remain a viable explanatory model considering the past glitch with measurements regarding cosmic dust and the failure of Kepler to confirm...or maybe string theory is the future.

I think you mean Planck, not Kepler. The "glitch" was primarily an over-eager research group trying to beat Planck to the punch. They took a gamble at seeing a result and lost. It doesn't mean the theory is in trouble, just that the effect they're trying to detect wasn't strong enough to detect with their experiment. In fact, if they had detected it, it would have been a big surprise to most people that the effect was that strong, i.e., as strong as it possibly could have been.

Cosmic inflation is not at risk of being shot down just yet.
 
I'm having trouble with this statement:

"If you do not wish us to take this action, please tell us at any time up to 7 days before your renewal date."

Does it mean that if I do not wish them to take this action I should tell them between today and a cut-off date that is seven days prior to the renewal date, or does it mean that I should tell them on a date that falls between seven days prior to the renewal date and the renewal date? It's the "up to 7" phrasing that confuses me. Any number between 1 and 7, to me, is up to 7. So on that basis, day 5 before renewal date should be suitable to tell them, because 5 is found on the way up to 7.

Yours dumbfully, etc.
 
I'm having trouble with this statement:

"If you do not wish us to take this action, please tell us at any time up to 7 days before your renewal date."

Does it mean that if I do not wish them to take this action I should tell them between today and a cut-off date that is seven days prior to the renewal date, or does it mean that I should tell them on a date that falls between seven days prior to the renewal date and the renewal date? It's the "up to 7" phrasing that confuses me. Any number between 1 and 7, to me, is up to 7. So on that basis, day 5 before renewal date should be suitable to tell them, because 5 is found on the way up to 7.

Yours dumbfully, etc.


It's confusing. I'd call them. First, I'd try to cancel, regardless of what day it is now, and then I'd call them.
 
Idly wondering if Cosmic inflation is going to remain a viable explanatory model considering the past glitch with measurements regarding cosmic dust and the failure of Kepler to confirm...or maybe string theory is the future.

I think you mean Planck, not Kepler. The "glitch" was primarily an over-eager research group trying to beat Planck to the punch. They took a gamble at seeing a result and lost. It doesn't mean the theory is in trouble, just that the effect they're trying to detect wasn't strong enough to detect with their experiment. In fact, if they had detected it, it would have been a big surprise to most people that the effect was that strong, i.e., as strong as it possibly could have been.

Cosmic inflation is not at risk of being shot down just yet.

Yeah I meant Planck, but Kepler came out instead. I was considering Steinhardt as one of the key contributors to the inflation model who has renounced it because he claims that inflation would not make just one universe, but would keep making universes forever.
 
I'm having trouble with this statement:

"If you do not wish us to take this action, please tell us at any time up to 7 days before your renewal date."

Does it mean that if I do not wish them to take this action I should tell them between today and a cut-off date that is seven days prior to the renewal date, or does it mean that I should tell them on a date that falls between seven days prior to the renewal date and the renewal date? It's the "up to 7" phrasing that confuses me. Any number between 1 and 7, to me, is up to 7. So on that basis, day 5 before renewal date should be suitable to tell them, because 5 is found on the way up to 7.

Yours dumbfully, etc.


It's confusing. I'd call them. First, I'd try to cancel, regardless of what day it is now, and then I'd call them.
Thanks. Really I was just looking for reassurance that it's a confusing statement, rather than an issue with my reading comprehension (though I suppose it could be a combination of both). I have a feeling it's deliberately unclear. We are talking insurance, after all.
 
I'm having trouble with this statement:

"If you do not wish us to take this action, please tell us at any time up to 7 days before your renewal date."

Does it mean that if I do not wish them to take this action I should tell them between today and a cut-off date that is seven days prior to the renewal date, or does it mean that I should tell them on a date that falls between seven days prior to the renewal date and the renewal date? It's the "up to 7" phrasing that confuses me. Any number between 1 and 7, to me, is up to 7. So on that basis, day 5 before renewal date should be suitable to tell them, because 5 is found on the way up to 7.

Yours dumbfully, etc.

I read it as "If you don't want this action to occur, let us know prior to seven days before the date of renewal."

So there's the renewal date. Subtract seven days from that date, and there's your deadline. They need seven days notice in advance, or the renewal goes through as usual. Sort of like if I want to cancel a doctor's appointment, I have to call them at least 24 hours before the date and time of the appointment to avoid being charged, to allow them to fill my appointment time with someone else.

That's how I read it anyway. But I agree, a phone call could save some aggravation.
 
I read it as "If you don't want this action to occur, let us know prior to seven days before the date of renewal."

You can't trust them to mean that. It may be that they just screwed up, but it may also be deliberately obscurantist, so that they can tell people they did it wrong and renew (or whatever) anyway.

I might cancel once before the seven days and again during the seven days. But I would definitely contact them and find out what their official position is. I might want it in writing.
 
Thanks for that. I'll be calling them tomorrow to get a definitive statement on this deadline, which I suspect has already passed.
 
So what about Penrose's proposition that it is gravity that provides objective wave function collapse, particle position, the architecture and motion of all macro scale structures, Galaxies, stars, planets, gas clouds, etc....classical physics and determinism on a macro scale?
 
Can anyone point me to an objective, evidence based paper or article on the health affects of pesticides? Or can anyone who actually has a pretty good idea already based on evidence just let me know if organic produce has any value?

Remember reading a study a while back that scientists were split on the issue, so I wonder if concrete evidence just isn't quite there yet.
 
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