Angra Mainyu
Veteran Member
I already did, plenty of times, and I already told you, that's your responsibility, not mine.Togo said:Then give us cases where it was enforced. Surely evidence of widespread Muslim persecution of non-Muslims would be excellent support for the OP overall... What are you waiting for?
But you want more?
How about the following one?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Youcef_Nadarkhani
The accusation of apostasy was because he was allegedly born into Islam, and then converted to Christianity. In the end, he served prison time, and ended up convicted of attempting to convert Muslims. He is a Christian.
This one was a Muslim as an adult, but then converted:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abdul_Rahman_(convert)
He was released on a technicality due to a lot of international pressure.
How about a man who claimed to be God, and was for that reason hanged?
http://www.couriermail.com.au/news/...997877608?nk=ea27ea8ed421a7c1395df5a10184cd16
How about executions of gay people?
There is nothing in the law that says it applies only to Muslims (which would still be abhorrent).
http://www.theguardian.com/world/2011/sep/07/iran-executes-men-homosexuality-charges
But of course, for some reason that does not count?
Maybe it's because only apostasy charges count? But I already provided evidence of apostasy cases (and much more), and I'm including other charges because it's surely more evidence of Islamic violence. But I suppose for some reason, you will say it's not. It can't be Islam. It must be something else.
Or maybe that's just the government, not ordinary Muslims, right? So, it must be political. But when lynch mobs do it, then that's just the fringe, regardless of mob size, right? But when millions support punishment for apostasy and adultery, maybe they are only talking about self-identified Muslims?
Or perhaps it's something else - it's always something else. It can't be Islam. It's just a matter of logic, right?
It appears in so many religions? You mean counting extinct religions, or even counting religions that changed so that it no longer applies? Sure, some religions copy the codes of other religions.Togo said:Yes, I think that the motivation to stone adulterers to death is not based on their religious beliefs. It's a cultural belief local to certain areas. Which is why it appears in so many different religions, and why it isn't carried out by so many Muslims.
But how do you think the idea of killing adulterers comes into their heads? Is it not because of their religious indoctrination? Are they perhaps told that adulterers should be stoned because, say, it's the local custom? Or because they deserve it, as intuitively apprehended?
It is far more likely that they come up with the idea because they're told that there is a hadith or two that establishes the death penalty, plus some Sharia rules regarding how to carry it out?
For example:
Source: http://islamqa.info/en/101972
That's usually interpreted as establishing the death penalty.It is not permissible to shed the blood of a Muslim who bears witness that there is no god but Allaah and that I am the Messenger of Allaah except in three cases: a life for a life (murder), zina of one of who is previously-married (adultery), and the one who changes his religion and forsakes the jamaa’ah.
But still, I ask: how do you think they are told or come up with the idea of stoning adulterers - or killing them in general?
Those are examples of Muslims supporting punishment for apostasy of non-Muslims, in cases in which the non-Muslims in question hadn't self-identified as Muslims as adults. That was further evidence about your self-identification case.Togo said:No, it isn't. The evidence is that people actually carry them out. If the hadith says kill X, and all the scholars agree it says kill X, and X is not in fact killed, has the writing made anyone more violent? You're arguing that we can say that a religion makes people violent without any violent acts taking place. That's nonsense. There has to be a violent act, or it isn't violence. You've not given any cases where this occurs, and certainly none where it can be said to be common, widespread, or a feature of the practice of the religion as a whole.
But if you're only going to accept evidence from actual punishments, then for that matter you may as well reject the entire poll on the grounds that the people responding were not actually punishing anyone, but only saying they supported it.
So, the examples I posted in which Muslims discuss the matter on-line and endorse the classification that gets many non-Muslms classified as Muslims and punished as apostates are evidence in support of the hypothesis that the support for the punishment for apostates expressed in the poll is not limited to punishment of people who self-identify as Muslims - something I have already shown beyond a reasonable doubt anyway.
Now, if you're asking for examples of actual punishment of non-Muslims for apostasy, sure. That is something you should have researched on your own before promoting your defense of Islam, but now I provided some examples above. Bomb#20 provided examples too. Plenty. I also provided examples of punishments for sorcery, and blasphemy, against Muslims and non-Muslims alike. You can and should find more.
By the way, violence does not require actual enforcement of the death penalty. A threat that forces people to shut up is violence. Flogging or canning people to later "spare" them is violence. Imprisoning them under an accusation of apostasy and after months or years of imprisonment letting them go on a technicality (lack of evidence, not enough witnessess, or whatever) is violence.
And of course, the actual killings that do happen sometimes are violence.
No, that does not follow.Togo said:If that were true, my answers would make no sense, and further discussion would not only be pointless, but actually impossible. If you really believe that I'm not being rational, then trying to reply to me is an irrational act. Your call.
A philosopher may - for example - make irrational probabilistic assessments of a number of events (e.g., the resurrection of Jesus) without any explicit logical errors (there might be errors in his failure to update probabilities properly), and at the same time very rationally check the arguments of his opponent for errors, and find them. It's not that they're going to be irratinal about everything and all the time.
That aside, your claim that if I believe that you're being rational, it's irrational of me to respond to you, is both unwarranted and false false. There may well be good reasons to respond, like:
1. If a person is irrationally assigning probabilities to the observed events, that does not mean they cannot be persuaded. For example, if they give the observations that count against their views far less weight than they should, then that might be compensated by just coming up with far more evidence than ought to be required.
2. If a person is being irrational in a debate and is not persuaded, that does not mean they won't eventually - month later, perhaps - come back, and read the debate while being rational, or irrational to a lesser degree, and be persuaded.
3. This is not a private debate between you and me. There are readers who might be persuaded. Now, as it happens, I don't think I have a good chance of persuading many present-day readers, partly due to a tl;dr problem, but I might be able to persuade a few. Or maybe one or two odd future readers.
I could name more reasons (in fact, there are others), but I'd rather leave it at that, for reasons you might or might not guess, and since I've already shown that your claim of irrationality does not follow.
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