No, accepted by all sociologists.
That's a pretty tall claim. What evidence do you have for it?
Because it's a red herring. If you want to discuss it, kindly start a thread.
It's not a red herring. If you think that "racism = bigotyry + power" than power held by blacks is highly relevant to your claims in this thread.
No, I'm not. But if the shoe fits...
It doesn't. You might want to put in on yourself too, though. Perhaps you are the Cinderella.
To clarify, I am stating that denial of the accepted sociological definition of "racism" is one of the habits that Highly Affected racialists have. That is NOT the same as claiming that all people who engage in this behavior are necessarily racialists. They may merely be ignorant.
Rejecting an ideologically motivated redefinition is hardly ignorant.
Pat Bidot did not come up with that definition. She merely used it in the article i linked to.
AFAIK she at least coined that handy formulation. In any case the term racism long predates what you call the "sociological definition".
In reality, the sociological definition of racism is quite a bit more complicated and nuanced than that. I use it here for the sake of simplification.
I know. It has to be more complicated because they need to get to the foregone conclusion that "only whites can be racist" by any means necessary. Even if it means being very creative with definitions of "racism".
So no, nobody is 'redefining" the word, any more than Biologists are 'redefining" the word "theory" by using it in it's scientific sense. Lots of words have more than one definition. That's why it's important to define your terms.
Not all definitions make sense. Take for example kind. It has a rather unstable definition designed for the foregone conclusion that all animal kinds were on the ark. Same with your definition of racism whose purpose is not better understanding of race relations but to justify the politically expedient conclusion that "only whites can be racist".
If you want to show your ass, sure.
I'll leave that tactic to you.
Where is it written that such critics actually have a leg to stand on? Either you don't understand what it means to define one's terms for the sake of discussion, or you are merely thrashing about ineffectually in an attempt to muddy the waters. Either way, your point is moot.
Criticism of this definition has been offered in this thread. Your only reply is an appeal to authority ("accepted by sociologists"). If you can't defend
why this particular definition makes more sense than the broader one, you should let it go.